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@BW and @madhur2k9,
- Dan June 23, 2016I tried commenting a few minutes ago, but my comment didn't seem to post. I think it may be because I was including an external link to Wikipedia (on the binomial distribution). Here it is again, rewritten.
Your functions won't return 0, 1, and 2 with equal probability. This is because you're essentially sampling from a binomial distribution with n=2 and p=0.5. The probability of 0 is .25, probability of 1 is .5, and probability of 2 is .25.
In @BW's explanation, "0+1=1" is missing from the enumerations. Including that makes it clearer that 1 has higher probability than the others.
Given that rand2 uniformly samples from 0 and 1, my interpretation is that rand3 should uniformly sample from 0, 1, and 2.